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by WalterBright
3519 days ago
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This doesn't explain at all why industrialization happened in the US and not in South America. The answer is free markets. The industrial revolution happened in free market countries. BTW, gold and silver extracted from the New World doesn't explain it. 1. Gold and silver are not economic wealth - Spain (the main recipient of it) experienced inflation. 2. Spain did not become the dominant power in Europe, though it should have if exploiting the New World was the key. 3. The IR happpened in the US starting around 1800. The US was not extracting gold/silver from elsewhere, had no empire, had no banking system to speak of, was a nation of subsistence farmers, had no great cities, etc. |
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In a similar vein, I was quite surprised to learn how industrial early 19th century Peru was, until they decided to screw development and just exploit the land.
(Though I think the internal comparison of different parts of the US is more relevant, since they operated under the same political and economic frameworks, yet developed quite differently. Maybe a relatively free market is a necessary condition for industrial revolution, but it sure as hell isn't sufficient.)