|
|
|
|
|
by tjic
3523 days ago
|
|
> You assume that "freedom to contract" means that both parties enter with equal knowledge and equal bargaining power. No, it doesn't. I'm Hayek-friendly, so I don't think two entities EVER have the same knowledge. "Freedom to contract" no more implies equal knowledge than "freedom to drink" implies equal knowledge of brewing, or "freedom to date" implies equal attractiveness. |
|