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by YeGoblynQueenne
3570 days ago
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>> Not deliberately. Yes, deliberately. The fact there's inequality in the distribution, when there is no good reason for it is evidence of some sort of bias in the selection process. >> For whatever reason, the majority is of a particular gender. For the reason that there is inequality between the two genders in society. You don't need to grasp for metaphysical explanations when you already know the two genders are treated differently in employment (as in many other matters). |
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If it's unconscious bias, it's not deliberate. And it's much more than just selection bias, it's also a cultural/social issue. It happens way before someone enters the workforce.
>>> For the reason that there is inequality between the two genders in society.
I'm not denying that.