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by marktheknife 3583 days ago
In general, U.S. reduces its tax by $1 on foreign income for every $1 of foreign taxes paid on it. So if Apple decides to repatriate the money after paying foreign taxes on it, the U.S. is in effect paying for the increased money going to the EU. (Or presumably would; perhaps the U.S. could argue this additional payment is not a creditable foreign tax.)