As far as I am aware he has never been diagnosed by a licensed psychologist. Indications of sociopathic tendencies are not evidence enough that he is a sociopath, diagnosis is.
Is describing someone as sociopathic really any different than saying that they have indications of sociopathic tendencies, though? If I describe someone as crepuscular based on when I see them active, it doesn't make them a short-eared owl.