[dalke]

Yes, Louis X abolished slavery in mainland France. That did not apply to the French colonies. If the Bible lead him to believe that slavery was wrong for French Christians, why didn't he also conclude it was wrong for non-French heathens?

There is a huge amount of material on this subject. The things I have mentioned are not an extreme revisionist interpretation of what happened.

I am not interested in transferring this discussion to another location.

Best of wishes,