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by cSoze
3632 days ago
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Still doesn't make much sense to use a secondary trait like educational attainment (58% heritability at highest) over a primary one like IQ (>80% heritability). Most of these phenotypes strike me as pretty questionable. Maybe I missed something, but how well does BMI measured at age 45-50 correlate with BMI at reproductive age? Wouldn't a far simpler approach be to measure allelic frequency at regions near GWAS QTLs in multiple generations? |
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Educational attainment is phenotyped much more often than is IQ, so it's both available in this dataset and available in the much larger datasets of the GWAS in question. Aside from being a phenotype of interest in its own right and a case of looking under the lamppost, EA also proxies for intelligence on both the genetic and phenotype level. (In some cohorts, like the UK Biobank, the cognitive performance test used has such low test-retest reliability that anyone who is looking for intelligence variants is going to want to use the education variable anyway!)
> Maybe I missed something, but how well does BMI measured at age 45-50 correlate with BMI at reproductive age?
I'm sure the correlation is <1. But as long as it's not an inverse correlation, it's fine. That is just measurement error which will bias down to 0 the estimate and lead to underestimate of selection.
> Wouldn't a far simpler approach be to measure allelic frequency at regions near GWAS QTLs in multiple generations?
How do you aggregate those QTLs? You can't examine them individually, that would be horrifically underpowered. If you wind up summing them, don't you get a polygenic score back and do what OP did?