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by alexbock
3641 days ago
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The states I've checked all have a law against misrepresenting the origin of a political advertisement that advocates (even indirectly) for/against a candidate or party, and sometimes ballot measures are included too. Some of them are more strict than others, this is from Texas for example: A person commits an offense if, with intent to
injure a candidate or influence the result of an
election, the person enters into a contract or
other agreement to print, publish, or broadcast
political advertising that purports to emanate
from a source other than its true source.
It's hard to say this is a traditional political advertisement. Whether you could convince a judge that an ad purporting to be from the NRA (and presumably making Republicans look bad) is intended to influence an election is questionable. If they had included mention of Hillary or Trump in the video this would be pretty clear cut, but as is it's harder because the link between supporting or attacking candidates through political entities they do or don't support without actually mentioning them by name is a case law issue. |
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This seems to be the key issue. It seems unlikely that a prosecutor could achieve a conviction under these laws, given the specific meaning of some of the terms used (as defined in §251.001). I haven't seen the video, but it sounds like it was a general parody of the NRA?
At any rate, a prosecutor would have to prove that:
1. The creator of the video has specific intent to harm a particular candidate, or otherwise influence the election result.
2. The latter part of #1 (influence result) seems to be made irrelevant by the definition of 'political advertisement': "...means a communication supporting or opposing a candidate for nomination or election to a public office or office of a political party, a political party, a public officer" [§251.001 (16)]