Hacker News new | ask | show | jobs
by qf303rjr3 3653 days ago
No - you have the following identity because 0 = -0

  0^0 = 0^(-0)
and by the definition of negative exponents,

  0^(-0) = 1/(0^0)
So whatever number 0^0 is, it is equal to its own reciprocal.
1 comments
fisherjeff 3653 days ago
Ah, ok. I didn't have an issue with the first half, I just misunderstood: I thought he was stating that 0^0 == 1/0^0, not deriving it.
link