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by mapt
3669 days ago
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For one, theories of economy were created in order to better serve the people's needs and wants using scarce resources - if they can be demonstrated (as in western Europe) to represent very large increases in the hedonic calculus, they are objectively superior. For two, a liberal democracy's functioning is premised on a degree of middle class participation: a large group of people with sufficient assets that they have a stake in the future (beyond entertainment value), but insufficient assets and numbers too great to corrupt the system towards their own ends. |
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The only way this could be true is the extraordinarily unlikely case where every individual provably had better experienced utility in one system than another, otherwise, the fact that there is no one objectively correct method of aggregating utilities across individuals to get a single measure of societal good means that there is no objectively correct ordering.