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by MicroBerto
3678 days ago
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I've brought this up in the past, and am always met with arguments that just don't seem to dent the problem statement. My simple question I always pose is this: "If everyone has $X dollars, then wouldn't $X become worthless?" I fail to see how there won't be some kind of inflationary situation amongst the lower class, especially in the form of rents over the course of a year as leases reset. I also refuse to accept any argument that involves the majority of landlords "doing the right thing". Thanks for posting the Law of Rent. |
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Yes, it would most likely cause some inflation of consumer goods, since poor people spend more of their money on consumer goods than rich people (so when you transfer wealth from the rich to the poor, consumer goods will become more expensive)
This increase in consumer good prices, however, will also cause more resources to go into producing goods for poor people (who suddenly aren't so poor anymore). Depending on the limiting factors for these consumer goods, this will most likely cause prices to stabilize at a reasonable place.