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by kenjackson
3685 days ago
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(From my above reply too, as it applies here also): Lets be clear -- if the null hypothesis in this case is true (that there is no bias), and all other assumptions made are true, there is a slightly greater than 5.7% chance of obtaining this result (or something even more skewed). That's a great bar for publication of SCIENCE. It's not a great bar for hiding behind a proprietary algorithm used in sentencing.
People talk about misuse of p-values, but this takes the cake. |
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I'm confused though; the mood affiliation of your post somehow suggests that her less than perfect choice of a statistical methodology somehow supports her claims. Could you explain that? Or am I simply misunderstanding what you are trying to say?
Also, lets suppose we just take her own analysis at face value, and don't view it through the p-value lens. The maximum likelihood estimate suggests that even if this effect is not random chance, it's not very big. I.e., the "score factor high" estimate is >8x larger than the "score factor high, race = black" estimate. Isn't this really good? Do you really think the human biases that this algorithm mitigates are lower than this?
Lastly, what specific analysis would convince you that this algorithm is predictive and non-biased (or more realistically, not very biased)?