|
|
|
|
|
by lucb1e
3684 days ago
|
|
> If you can set cookies, the user has already expressed their consent by enabling the cookies in the browser. As long as cookies' existence is common knowledge (it is by now), there is no need to duplicate browser UI within every website. Wrong. If I disable cookies in my browser, I can't log in to websites anymore, so they need to be allowed. A whitelist would be very inconvenient. On top of that, it's not explicit allowance, it'd be implicit (i.e. opt-out instead of opt-in). I don't know if British legislation is different, but this is illegal at least in the Netherlands. |
|
It has never been enforced that way to my knowledge, anywhere in the EU. Which law or court decision says that it is actually illegal?