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by mahmud 3685 days ago
It's the exact same thing.

For example, Suez Canal is called "Qanat al-Suez" in Arabic.

1 comments

That doesn't answer the GP's question of whether there's an etymological link. That is, are the two words derived from the same root in some ancient language? It is a reasonable question since they are phonologically similar, but from different language families.
And just because two words sound similar doesn't mean they have similar roots. The word for “dog” in the Australian Aboriginal language Mbabaram happens to be “dog,” not because they have the same root but by coincidence.

https://books.google.co.uk/books?id=UtFqXQosVP0C&pg=PT283&lp...

Just to add to the fun, the etymology of the word "dog" itself is completely unknown.

There's a single documented mention of the Old English "docga" - and then nothing.

How this word took over pretty much well entirely from "hound" is a mystery.

If that's not enough, the Polish word for dog - "pies" - has exactly the same issue!

(and I believe, but can't say with any certainty, that other Slavic languages may have the same issue.)

Edit: Oxford English's page on "dog" is paywalled off but still available in via Google's cache, a fascinating read if you have a spare 15 minutes:

http://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?q=cache:jNMSJSG...

they're known as "false cognates" in linguistics: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/False_cognate
This one btw doesn't include the one that is strangest to me: that Chinese for mom or momma is 妈妈 "mama" and pop, pappa is 爸爸 "baba".
What is also interesting is that certain words share similar literal constructions in unrelated languages.

The best example I've always thought of is the verb "to understand". Picture standing under something; you get to know it better.

In my native language Twi [1], the to understand is literally constructed as "to to sit under" I know of several other languages with very similar constructions.

[1] http://www.omniglot.com/writing/twi.htm

These are nearly universal AFAIK. I've heard stipulated a link between this and the fact that these are the first sounds a child will learn.
> these are the first sounds a child will learn.

Not really, no. 'Gaga' or 'kaka' are just as easy yet aren't universal. The mystery is not solved. (Could be just areal effects, for example.)

There's nothing even slightly strange about it. The terms are self-recapitulating because parents mistake children's babbling for first words. If anything, it'd be strange if they weren't the same. Take a read of this: http://languagehat.com/trask-on-mama-and-papa/
Addendum: in case anybody's wondering what I meant when I wrote "it'd be strange if they weren't the same", I was referring to the high probability of them being coincidentally the same or at least very similar.
Then why isn't aunt "gaga" in all languages?
I always presumed these were universal because they are the easiest sounds for infants to make.
I'm not sure why that was downvoted. It's a reasonable assertion.
The 'ma' and 'pa' sounds are some of the easiest sounds to make by babies since they just require the lips and don't involve the tongue.
You might be interested in the article by Larry Trask linked to here: http://languagehat.com/trask-on-mama-and-papa/
canal deriv. : 1400-50; late Middle English: waterpipe, tubular passage < Latin canālis, perhaps equivalent to can (na) reed, pipe (see cane ) + -ālis -al1; def. 5 a mistranslation of Italian canali channels, term used by G. V. Schiaparelli