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by thaumasiotes
3713 days ago
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As made explicit in the sexual assault policies of various US universities, a female is unable to consent if she's had any alcohol (the "1 beer" model of being drunk). It is not a defense, or grounds for a counterclaim, that the male might have been equally or more drunk. (I say made explicit; the "any alcohol" threshold is what's made explicit. The wording of formal policies is generally scrupulously gender-neutral, but their application isn't.) In an actual US criminal court, I believe drunken consent is no different from any other consent. |
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I asked for evidence on this once before on HN, and they came up with two links. Both referred to the exact same case. And that case involved two people so drunk that neither could actually recall what happened.
That person at least provided links (admittedly they actually undermined his claims, but still). You've provided nothing but a bold assertion.
My suggestion to you and the original poster: if what you claim is true, is actually true, then a) stop using the word "drunk" as it is ambiguous, use the phrase "after one alcoholic drink", as this massively bolsters your case that the policy is ill-thought out b) have a link from a reputable source that actually backs up the reality of what you claim since on the face of it you'd expect a bigger fuss to have been made about this if it was true (much like I'd have heard about it via standard channels, not forwarded emails from racist uncles, if someone had actually banned Christmas because of the Muslims).
Edit: here's the first policy my Googling returned, it all seems very reasonable to me:
https://share.cornell.edu/education-engagement/sex-alcohol-a...
Key phrases: "drinking heavily", "highly intoxicated" and so on.