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by arethuza 3705 days ago
"they know these kinds of tests can be unreliable, being confronted with the chance to take one can filter out disingenuous defendants."

So if I was charged with a crime and when offered a polygraph test and I refused it on the grounds that it is unreliable I would be treated as being likely to be "disingenuous" and therefore presumably more likely to be guilty?

Edit: I meant more likely to be thought of as guilty.

1 comments

Well, going on pure logic, all disingenuous defendants refuse the test =/= all those who refuse the test are disingenuous.

However, an overhaul of the process would need to accompany any use of a polygraph.

You think "pure logic" is being applied at any part of the process?
I think a guilty person has nothing to lose by taking a polygraph test.
Except for the one guilty party who somehow ended up uncovering more evidence that they did the crime.