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by justinjlynn
3739 days ago
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Generally, individuals with the XY genotype but the female phenotype have an additional genetic anomaly which renders them androgen insensitive. Therefore, I would say that, in most cases, the sex of an individual is fully, or at least a fully as possible, genetic. It's just not as dependent on the presence of an X or Y chromosome as one would think. I suppose you could induce something like that by treating an embryo with finasteride or another SARM but there's a reason such drugs are in pregnancy category X. They tend to produce wider ranging and more severe defects than just changing the sex of the embryo. Hormones are complicated. |
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