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by woodman
3754 days ago
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> ...how else would you or anyone define it? A geographic location where there exists a monopoly on violence. For example: the USG gets to decide who is allowed to kill who and under what circumstances, exclusively, for a specific location. That monopoly can be made clear through laws, but it isn't necessary - consider monarchies with no legislative bodies. Also consider the fact that laws cannot be established without a monopoly on violence, which a lot of people seem to get confused about - thinking the authority over violence is somehow derived from law... > And are we talking philosophical or real world examples? I'm really tempted to launch into a rant about cognitive dissonance here, but I'll just save time and say that is a distinction without a difference. As far as examples, like I said, pick any monarchy without a legislative body - Native American history has plenty of that. |
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I would say that "a geographic location where there exists a monopoly on violence (such as a monarchy without legislature)" nonetheless has implicit laws that guide its hand. And by which it is judged! Indeed, transgressing unwritten social contracts has led to the downfall of most monarchies throughout history. Or to put it another way, co-opted power structures are necessary for the governance of any sufficiently large group, above and beyond sheer force. And power-structures require some sort of bargaining and negotiation even if it's rather one-sided.
Laws as instruments to communicate expectations are what makes scalable organization possible past a certain point, whether they're explicit or implicit.
That's why you don't see any long-lived civilizations with true violent anarchy as a form of government.