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by dsp1234
3772 days ago
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it just kind of has the wrong connotations, because it's used rigorously in mathematics And the original use was in Philology[0]. Just because a word has two different meanings in two different contexts doesn't means it's wrong. I'm certainly glad the linguists didn't get up in arms when the mathematicians gave the 'wrong connotation' to isomorphism. [0] - https://books.google.com/books?id=hZpeAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA711&lpg=... |
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By the way, for the broader point about language mutation, and prescriptivism vs descriptivism, I think there's a common stance against prescriptivism that also seems to rule out any negative opinion about language change—to which I say, hey, negative opinions are part of the whole mess too, even from a descriptivist standpoint. But this is a derail already; sorry.