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by throwaway27_35
3774 days ago
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Israel was ruled by the British empire until 1948 but by 1956 (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Suez_Crisis) was friendly enough with Britain to side with them in a war. While I think your explanation is partially true, I think it is also an oversimplification. Why can some countries get over colonial interference, while others use it to justify everything they do? This also begs the question what is Iran's main problem with Israel then? Israel wasn't involved in operation Ajax. Why is it the little Satan to America's great Satan? Given their conduct in Syria, I find the "sympathy with the Palestinians" slightly hard to believe. |
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