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by jndsn402
3776 days ago
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I don't disagree with the math, but wouldn't it be the case that it's easier to get a biased sample from 1000/100M people than 1000/1M people? For instance, maybe your sampling ignored a particular region of the country or socioeconomic strata etc. |
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It's not the population size that matters; it's the variance in the underlying population.
Mathematically, the sample size needed to construct an n% confidence interval for a normal distribution is independent of the population size (the first derivative is zero).