[EliRivers]

As an aside, do they measure violent crime in the same way? I understand that over half of UK recorded violent crime results in no physical injury to the victim, and there are some recorded violent crimes in which the victim is not required to be present.

There is a common false comparison of violent crime between the US and the UK that appears to indicate the UK suffers more violent crime, because what counts as "violent crime" in the UK is much wider than in the US.