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by rogersmith 3807 days ago
Key word in that sentence would be "apparently" (although feel free to provide hard data backing that claim).

A just as probable explanation (and equally controversial and possibly discouraged)would be that Ashkenazi Jews may or may not have acquired a disproportionate influence (wrt to the %age of the population they comprise), allowing them to be over-represented in certain fields giving them the appearance of being "more intelligent on average"?

1 comments

Just research it for a bit (google "ashkenazi intelligence"), I think it's pretty evident.
Best I could find is a shady Wikipedia article referencing a controversial study, not exactly compelling evidence... Nevermind that scientists cannot even agree on a standard valid unit of measurement for "intelligence".

edit: Just google "white men can't jump", i think it's pretty obvious

Well I mean, the evidence is pretty strong. Several IQ studies, vastly overrepresented among Nobel Prize winners, Fields Medal winners, ACM Turing Award winners, 6 out of 19 chess champions, etc. I think the disproportionate influence theory is an extremely unlikely explanation (6 out of 19 chess champions? no, that's not because of disproportionate influence).