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by minimaxir 3816 days ago
Yes, this is correct.

I just realized I misread the GP's comment: thought it said "P-value" in general instead of "P-value of Pearson correlation," as a result I thought he was referring to a regression P-value.

1 comments

As far as I understand the p-value of a Pearson correlation is exactly the same as the p-value of a simple linear regression.
You understand correctly. I have no idea what he's even trying to say now.