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by phaemon
3832 days ago
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No, read the pdf I linked. Yours is the first misconception they address. In summary, though, if we imagine that the bank is required to hold 10% reserve: I go to the bank and get a loan for $900. This is credited to my account. There is no requirement for this money to actually exist. The same day, you go and deposit $100 in actual dollar bills. Your account is credited with $100. The bank's liabilities are now $100 (in your account) plus $900 (in my account) for a total of $1000. The banks reserve is $100 (real dollar bills you gave them). This is 10% reserve so the bank is legally OK. $900 has been created. That's how it works. More detail in the PDF I linked. |
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Amongst other things, this means that how profligate a bank can be in lending money depends heavily on how much all the other banks are lending. So long as all the other banks are lending just as much out and their savings terms are competitive, the outflow of loaned funds will be balanced by an inflow of other banks' loaned funds. What happens in practice is that there's a glut of easy credit during booms which dries up during busts, making the boom-bust cycle worse. You can find some discussion of this here: http://www.bankofengland.co.uk/research/documents/workingpap...