Like, I'm not trying to be snarky, there's a lot of conversions going on there that aren't explicated. My takeaway is that if you can buy food and little else, that's poverty, right? Or no?
I was born and brought up in India. When I was going to school in 1990, my dad used to earn around 6,000 INR / month (120$/month, exchange rate was 50 back then). We ate out probably once every few months but even then, the salary was enough to feed family of 5 and send me and my sisters to school. I think you lack the perspective on how poor India and China is.
It was simply a correction to the following portion: "6,000 INR / month (120$/month, exchange rate was 50 back then)". Assuming the accuracy of the salary, it appears the following is more accurate: "6,000 INR / month (300$/month, exchange rate was 20 back then)".
Well, if you have a home and can cook food 400 Rs/day isn't too bad. (With 100 Rs you can get some vegetables more than a kilo of rice) Buying from a food stall is going to be somewhat more expensive than cooking food yourself. And food stall prices vary depending on quality of the food.
Also, poverty definitions vary.
EDIT: 400 Rs/day = 12000 Rs/month which isn't horrible.