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by rcthompson
3854 days ago
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If I am the sole owner of a work, I can change the license of newly distributed copies from any previous license to any new license that I want to, even if the new license is more restrictive. The new license doesn't retroactively apply to copies that were distributed under the old license, only new copies distributed under the new license. However, my original question still stands. If I hack privately on a git repo and never distribute it, and then I only add a license in commit N right before first releasing it publicly, what is the license of commits 1 through N-1, which do not contain a license themselves (or perhaps contain a different license) but were never distributed separately from the license contained in commit N? |
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Note by the way that you are ALREADY explicitly granting some rights by putting it on GitHub:
We claim no intellectual property rights over the material you provide to the Service. Your profile and materials uploaded remain yours. However, by setting your pages to be viewed publicly, you agree to allow others to view your Content. By setting your repositories to be viewed publicly, you agree to allow others to view and fork your repositories.
Arguing that this constitutes an implicit license to use this code probably wouldn't be too hard. However trying to relicense/redistribute is less likely. In the end this will have to be decided by a judge in court.