[digama]

Just because a question is well-posed doesn't mean it must be provable or disprovable. Consistency of ZFC is also a perfectly well-posed question with a finite answer (if one exists), but we know it is impossible to prove regardless. I don't think we can exclude independence as an option for any currently open question without actually proving or disproving it. (Of course, most mathematicians don't really think that P=NP will turn out to be independent, any more than the Riemann hypothesis or Goldbach's conjecture, but we don't know for sure.)

[mtdewcmu]

I'm trying to wrap my head around how P=NP could not have an answer, and I am not having much success. It could be that I am not educated enough to understand.

Notwithstanding that, I don't see how any of this relates to my original question.