[dpark]

> That's frequently the case

In my experience that is rarely the case. The reasons given are generally only compelling to others who already hold the same beliefs. If you're arguing against biblical literalism to others who consider the bible to be metaphorical, you will of course be successful. If you're arguing with a biblical literalist, you'll find that they fail to see the logic in your arguments. If you're arguing with a non-Christian, they'll likely just not care, but they might also find your arguments no more convincing than those of the literalist.

> for the latter, the existence of flat-out contradictions within the canon when interpreted literally is one of the more common.

This is only compelling if you start with the axiom that the bible (or whatever text) is correct. If you start with that, and then add contradictions, then the only way to resolve the discrepancy is to say that the bible is metaphorical. If you don't take correctness as an axiom, it's quite reasonable to say that the bible is mostly if not completely literal but that parts of it are simply wrong. It's not a question of correctness of interpretation, then, so much as a question of correctness of the canon.

[dragonwriter]

> This is only compelling if you start with the axiom that the bible (or whatever text) is correct.

Which would perhaps be a serious problem with criticizing biblical literalism with that argument if the literalism being criticized ever failed to included a strong form of inerrantism; since, as a doctrine, Biblical literalism is always tied to strong-form inerrantism (which is the axiom that the Bible is, in every particular, both moral and factual, correct), and subsidiary doctrines on matters of fact and/or morals can only be derived from it through its intersection with inerrantism, it really isn't a problem that challenges to literalism rely on arguments that are valid in the presence of inerrantism.

> If you don't take correctness as an axiom

Without inerrantism, whether something is a correct or incorrect interpretation of the Bible doesn't have any significance. Literalism or not only has any meaning in the context of inerrantism.

[dpark]

Those are good points. I concede that arguments against literalism that rely on one's belief can be useful and valid for believers. I'm not sure this is sufficient to demonstrate that, e.g. ISIS's interpretation is any less correct than other Muslim's though. When ISIS says the scriptures demand that apostates be crucified, I'm not sure that it's sufficient to point to another passage that says, hypothetically, to love everyone. You might argue that these are in contradiction and therefore the crucifixion is metaphorical or out of context, but they could as easily argue that the two are not in conflict, or that the love part is the metaphor (or taken or of context).