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by semi-extrinsic
3869 days ago
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I'm not sure what you mean by "There is essentially no dispute over the facts any more." As far as I understand, no-one has been able (yet) to make a prediction based on the many-worlds interpretation that could (even in theory, with infinite resources and time) be tested experimentally. Same goes for the Copenhagen interpretation. Thus neither of these are proper scientific theories (in the sense of Popper), and so we call them "interpretations". In light of this I don't understand how you can claim it is settled in favor of one side or the other? |
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