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by dschiptsov 3864 days ago
Is this a proof?

Western philosophy, so far, succeed in separating these concepts as being a priory which is perfectly reasonable, considering that any sensory input which is subsequently used to train and condition our mind is coming serialized by out sense organ, so, for a mind, which is a result of conditioning by the senses, the notion of succession is a priory. Conditioning by shared physical environment gives us cycles, so the notion of a cycle is also a priory. Succession days into nights in the environment and ageing of other people's bodies gives us notion of a continuous change. But change is not time.

Eastern philosophy (and modern cognitive neuroscience) would suggest that this a priory is related to our minds, not to photons or forces. So?

2 comments

Right so there's a thing we call time which is to do with how we experience the world around us. There is also a mathematical object of the same name which is part of a model which provides accurate predictions about how things behave. The more successful predictions a model has, the less likely it is that the model is fundamentally inaccurate. But although our perception of time is undoubtedly related to the thing represented by the mathematical object we also call time, they are not the same thing. One is a mathematical object, the other is a subjective experience.
What would you ask of a proof? If you're reading some text, how do you determine if the text constitutes a proof?
To "see" Universe as it is we have to remove an observer - a mind which creates appearances and conditions itself with them.

It is a hack, so to speak.)