[FD3SA]

Women in the United States gained the right to vote in 1920. The majority of men (non-landowners) received the right to vote only 50 years prior in 1870 [1].

This doesn't seem to be the work of a nefarious patriarchy behind the veil, but a continuing democratic movement that began with the Magna Carta.

Although of course, once again, this information does not fit the feminist narrative, and is blasphemy to a movement whose only goal is political power.

1. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Universal_suffrage

[wpietri]

So you're saying that women getting the vote two entire generations after men is not a sign of some sort of gender discrimination? (Let me guess, you're a guy.)

That would be a pretty rich claim on its own. Perhaps if were the single historical or present example of discrimination against women, maybe it would be worth considering. It isn't, of course.

Two easy examples were women not being allowed to own property:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coverture

And women being treated as the sexual property of men:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marital_rape