[jordigh]

A similar thing happens in Mexico. According to article 27 of the Mexican constitution, all beaches are public property:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constitution_of_Mexico#Article...

So how does this work in relation to the de facto apartheid we have in Mexico, thanks to resorts? Same thing: the people with money make their own rules.

Edit: Never mind, upon further investigation, it seems that the public property is not defined by the constitution, but by other laws, and individuals can obtain certain temporary concessions to use it which roughly corresponds to leasing the land from the government:

http://mexicolaw.com/Lawinfo30.htm

http://www.eloscabos.gob.mx/pdf/lyr/reglamento-de-acceso-a-p...

This still does end up furthering the de facto apartheid we have in Mexico, however.