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by danieltillett
3883 days ago
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It is in principle possible for a sub-popualtion like Ashkenazi Jews to have a higher mean intelligence and hence many more individual with extremely high intelligence without there being alleles with large affects on intelligence. It would just mean that they have a higher frequency of the small positive effect alleles. More importantly, people have looked for such alleles in the Ashkenazi population and have failed to find them. As far as I am aware there in no genetic disorder that only Ashkenazi’s suffer from that is not also present in the rest of the human population, the only difference is frequency. |
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They have? I'm not aware of any GWASes targeting intelligence using Ashkenazi samples.