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by yagibear
3887 days ago
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Why is it that so many people (such as this author) use participation rates as an indicator of equity? I understand gender equity to refer to equal TREATMENT of different genders, which is quite different from having equal NUMBERS of both genders in the workplace. Some differences in participation rates MAY be due to gender inequity, but some may also be due to other factors such as innate differences between genders (a crude example: perceptions about the meaning of prerequisites as mentioned in the article). The first proposed "solution" merely promotes participation rates as a measure of gender equity, and the 2nd proposal "Provide female entrepreneurs with..." just adds another form of inequity. Only the 4th proposal seems truly gender neutral and constructive. |
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It's easier to chase metrics than fix problems. Any many are deaf to the possibility that equal treatment would not yield equal participation.