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by ikeboy 3931 days ago
> but there is a specific criminal statute that applies to government employees acting deliberately contrary to Constitutional rights (deprivation of rights under color of law, 18 USC Sec. 242.)

Thank you for that. I think this would come under the "reasonable reliance on legal representations of those responsible for enforcing the law". Is the fact that a (later-to-be-declared-unconstitutional) law allows something itself a defense? I would strongly expect that to be the case, so to the extent that NSA programs were authorized by the Patriot act, even if said act is unconstitutional, workers would be immune.

In any event, following a later-declared-unconstitutional law does not seem to qualify as "deliberately contrary to Constitutional".

>Sure, the Constitution itself doesn't provide criminal penalties, but there (as noted above) are statutory provisions creating criminal liability for government officers that use their position to deny people Constitutionally-protected rights.

Fair enough.

>Government actions by actors other than Congress, and not justified by appeals to statute, can be decided on Constitutional grounds, both negative (Constitutional limitations) and positive (questions of whether positive authority is granted.)

If an action isn't warranted by statute, why would a court consider Constitutional issues at all? What about https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constitutional_avoidance

Could you give an example?

(It can also bind other legislators, not just Congress, and can bind anyone after a court ruling, but that shouldn't get to criminal liability except insofar as that statute you mentioned above).