Why? Surely their commitment was public, if the person in question was married. If the state sanctions a contract, in this case marriage, and one party does something to offend that contract, then why not make it public?
Infidelity can be just as serious, morally speaking, if the person in question is not married but in a long-term monogamous relationship. Is this simply a question about the law? I thought people were arguing about moral outrage.
In any case, not every breach of contract must be made public for all to see and humiliate you.
In any case, not every breach of contract must be made public for all to see and humiliate you.