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by LeUsername 3960 days ago
The focus is on being the next immediate crash. If you are asking whether there is a crash on 3 August, it is the unaffected odds of 1/365. But if you are asking whether the (first) next crash after 1 August is on 3 August, both the following must happen: a) there is no crash on 2 August b) there is a crash on 3 August

The gambler fallacy would be "I have seen 9 days without crash, on the 10th day there is higher odds of crash". But you are not asking this, you are asking: "What is the chance that in the next 10 days, exactly first 9 days would be no-crash and on the 10th day there is a crash".

EDIT: Also, another view:

If you have seen 9 blacks in a row, there is an even chance 1/2 (roulette without zero) that the next will be black or red. Because in all sequences of length 10 starting with 9 blacks (this is given, you observed this), there is equal number of those with 9 consecutive blacks and a red and of those with 9 consecutive blacks and a black. This is gambler fallacy, believing that after repeated colour, you have higher chance of the other colour.

Here, you are asking: how many of all sequences of length 10 have exactly 9 blacks and 1 red. And there are all kinds of sequences with 1 red in first 9 places, 2 reds, 3 reds, etc., so the odds of observing the 9 blacks in a row in the first place before asking about the 10th spin is lower, but it does not change the odds of the 10th spin itself.

1 comments

Super helpful! Thanks!